This week, my regular physical coincided with a symptom of something that required medicine to treat. My doctor gave me a prescription, which she noted would not be that expensive. She was all set to call it in
to CVS (my pharmacy on record, which I chose when I moved here based on its
proximity). I had some time to kill, so I asked for it on paper instead, so
that I could do some price comparison. Her staff informed me that I was lucky –
in one month, all prescriptions were going electronic, per some sort of
government mandate.
Since the doctor’s office was close to Costco, I started
there. That pharmacist told me the cash price (based on having no insurance,
since I haven’t yet met my deductible) of the generic was $39.38. Just curious,
I asked and was told the price of the brand drug - $432.50! Are the two drugs
equivalent, and if so, what accounts for the price differential? If they are
equivalent, why would someone choose the brand drug?
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I had no other information on which to base my purchasing
decision, so it came down to price, and I chose the most affordable option, but not without some hesitation. The adage “you get what
you pay for” may not be true, but it's ingrained. And I certainly regretted those years of putting cheap no-name gas in my
car when my fuel injectors needed replacing prematurely. Would I regret buying the cheapest generic, if it had some nasty side-effect? But is the costlier brand drug more effective than a
generic? Is it safer? Is Wegmans’ generic “better” than Costco’s? There's no way to
know. And soon, there will be no easy way even to decide based on price, thanks
to the move to the more efficient electronic prescription submission. How are we
ever going to get health care costs under control if those costs are so
variable, and yet they remain hidden until it’s time to pay them?
Why were you so surprised by the price differentials? Didn't you remember my Facebook post about drug costs a few months ago? ;-)
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